[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?
hendrik at topoi.pooq.com
Thu Jan 11 08:49:18 EST 2007
On Wed, Jan 10, 2007 at 03:04:26AM -0500, Lucius Schoenbaum wrote:
> It might have something to do with the early discovery of the Boolean
> structure and the analogy with set union and intersection. Boole in
> an investigation of the laws of thought already has addition for
> union, concatenative multiplication for intersection, and gives a
> distributive law x(y+z)=xy+xz.
Doesn't the same identity hold with exclusive or?
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