[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?
ltsbaum at gmail.com
Wed Jan 10 03:04:26 EST 2007
It might have something to do with the early discovery of the Boolean
structure and the analogy with set union and intersection. Boole in
an investigation of the laws of thought already has addition for
union, concatenative multiplication for intersection, and gives a
distributive law x(y+z)=xy+xz.
On Jan 9, 2007, at 23:38, John Baldwin wrote:
> I am preparing to teach a course in `proof'.
> Can anyone provide a principled reason for why logicians choose to
> interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?
> I understand that in the interpretations of statutes, the exclusive or
> is the default. So attorney's have made a different choice of
> John T. Baldwin
> Director, Office of Mathematics Education
> Department of Mathematics, Statistics,
> and Computer Science M/C 249
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