FOM: Jurassic pebbles
pratt at cs.Stanford.EDU
Tue Mar 17 12:26:45 EST 1998
From: kanovei at wminf2.math.uni-wuppertal.de (Kanovei)
>The Largange theorem is a product of social activity, and as such
>it most likely did not exist before L proved it.
1. Would it be fair to infer from this that you believe that mathematics
is not frozen in time but rather reflects what we know?
2. If yes to 1, would you accept that the Lagrange theorem was true
before Lagrange proved it, but was not a theorem of mathematics before
Lagrange made it one by proving it?
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