[FOM] illative logic

[Sara L. Uckelman]

On 03/26/2012 02:39 PM, Arnold Neumaier wrote:
> What is the origin of the term ''illative'' in illative combinatory
> logic? What does it mean?

It is from Latin "illativus", from the particple stem of <inferre>
'to infer'.  An illative particle, for example is one that introduces
or states an inference; it is in this sense that the word was first
used in English, in 1591: "A Coniunction‥some are‥Illatiues, as, assi, 
so." (from the OED s.v. illative).

-Sara


-- 
Dr. Sara L. Uckelman
Tilburg Center for Logic and Philosophy of Science
Tilburg University
http://lyrawww.uvt.nl/~sluckelman/