[FOM] Is logic prescriptive or descriptive?
jawbrey at att.net
Thu Jul 12 11:28:50 EDT 2012
The question of logic's normative status frequently comes up in discussions of C.S. Peirce's philosophy.
Here is a passage from a grant proposal where Peirce defines logic as "formal semiotic", in other words, the formal theory of signs:
The fact that he uses "formal" in this context to mean roughly the same thing as "normative" can be gleaned from numerous other statements, for example, this one:
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