[FOM] The Diagonalization Lemma (historical qn)
ps218 at cam.ac.uk
Thu Jul 5 06:06:01 EDT 2012
An historical question, that some FOMer might recall the answer to!
Distinguish the semantic Diagonalization Equivalence from the syntactic
Diagonalization Lemma. Carnap 1934 is often credited with the Lemma. But
that's wrong. He gets the Equivalence. Qn: who first explicitly states the
To explain. Take the Equivalence to be the claim that given a suitably nice
theory T with an interpreted language, and any one-place open T-sentence
phi, we can find a T-sentence G such that G <--> phi('G') is true, where
'G' is of course the numeral for the Gödel number of G under some sane
Take the Lemma to be the claim under the same conditions we can find a
T-sentence G such that T |- G <--> phi('G').
In Logical Syntax, Carnap gets the Equivalence (and that's what Gödel
attributes him in fn. 23 of his 1934 Princeton Lectures). On this basis,
Carnap is often/usually credited with the Lemma. But look carefully and it
just isn't there. Of course it is a very small step on from the semantic
Equivalence to the syntactic Lemma. But it IS a step. So I'm wondering who
first explicitly made it.
Dr Peter Smith
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