[FOM] Polish spaces and descriptive set theory

Jan Pax pax0 at seznam.cz
Fri Sep 7 13:05:14 EDT 2007

Can someone please give me the reason why in descriptive set theory we
prefer to work with perfect Polish spaces 
(i.e. toplogical spaces homeomorphic to a complete separable metric space without isolated points)
like Baire space w^w, instead of the more intuitive real line?

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