[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?

[Mark Steiner]

Many beginning students in logic automatically interplret p or q as
exclusive "or" when p and q are themselves mutually exclusive, or thought to
be so.  You can try an experiment with "p or not-p" and ask whether the 'or'
is inclusive or exclusive.  In those cases, however, which are numerous, it
doesn't matter what 'or' is being used.  I believe that Quiine makes this
point somewhere.