[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?
4mjmu at rogers.com
Wed Jan 10 07:44:55 EST 2007
> I am preparing to teach a course in `proof'.
> Can anyone provide a principled reason for why logicians choose to
> interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?
One reason is that the exclusive "or" and be interpreted as derived with
respect to the inclusive "or" and conjunction.
How "or" should be represented in empirical natural language semantics is a
bit of a different question.
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