[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?

[Klaus Ebbe Grue]

Hi John,

> I am preparing to teach a course in `proof'.
>
> Can anyone provide a principled reason for why logicians choose to
>  interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?

A guess: it seems that natural language develops in a 'Huffman coding' 
direction such that concepts used frequently get short names. So if 
'inclusive or' occurs more frequently than 'exclusive or' in papers 
writting by logicians, then 'inclusive or' will get the valuable (short) 
name 'or'.

Cheers,
Klaus