T.Forster at dpmms.cam.ac.uk
Mon Aug 13 03:08:26 EDT 2007
I know there are lots of people who dislike the axiom scheme of
replacement. They say things like ``it has no consequence for
ordinary mathematics'' and the like. Unfortunately i have none
of them handy at the moment, so i have to ask: do any of them
think that the axiom scheme is actually *false*? Or do they
merely think that it shouldn't be a core axiom?
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