[FOM] Infinity and the "Noble Lie"
lagnese at ngi.it
Sat Jan 7 23:30:59 EST 2006
> It is possible to express, and prove, the Paris-Harrington Theorem
> in many other formal systems, but any such proof will, I contend,
> at some point invoke an axiom which cannot be justified without
> reference to actually infinite sets, or structures of other types
> whose domain is necessarily infinite.
So, you think the Paris-Harrington statement itself cannot be "justified"
without reference to actually infinite sets?
What does "justify" mean?
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