[FOM] Roth's Theorem.

Bill Taylor W.Taylor at math.canterbury.ac.nz
Thu Apr 13 02:50:07 EDT 2006

This seems to say, (loosely), that any algebraic irrational real
cannot be approximated by rational p/q to within anything better than 1/q^2.

I presume it is well-known that almost all numbers are like this,
in some appropriate sense of almost all, (measure? category?).

Is this so, in fact?

Bill Taylor

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