FOM: truth and Aristotle
kanovei at wmwap1.math.uni-wuppertal.de
Mon Mar 4 17:14:24 EST 2002
>Date: Mon, 4 Mar 2002 13:56:01 -0600
>From: William Tait <wwtx at midway.uchicago.edu>
>I quoted (or paraphrased) Aristotle [...]
>``Things are prior...in two ways; for it is not the same
>to be prior by nature and prior in relation to us...'' [...]
>For, even if Aristotle or Frege had not written it,
>it is nevertheless true.
May I ask you, ``true'' in the last line, means true by nature
or should be considered as true in relation to us even if the
Aristotle had not actually written it?
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