FOM: Re: Arbitrary Objects
Kanovei
kanovei at wmwap1.math.uni-wuppertal.de
Thu Jan 31 15:57:47 EST 2002
Date: Thu, 31 Jan 2002 9:58:12 +0100
From: <P.T.M.Rood at ph.vu.nl> (P.T.M. Rood)
> (begin of citation)
>Can anybody explain why
>*change the value of the register named "x" to an object of type F*
>is better than
>*let x satisfy F* ?
The question seems besides the mark. I proposed the former
to be the semantic interpretation of the latter. And I explained
its virtues in my previous message.
> (end of citation)
Example:
1) let x be a linear operator on a Banach space
2) change the value of the register named "x" to a
linear operator on a Banach space
Please explain
how 2) can be *the semantic interpretation of* 1) ?
Does 2) have any more meaning in any sense than 1) ?
Where the register "x" is and how to change it to a
linear operator ?
To which exactly operator we change the register "x"
whatever it be ?
To "arbitrary"?
V.Kanovei
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