FOM: SOL confusion
T.Forster at dpmms.cam.ac.uk
Thu Sep 7 04:02:23 EDT 2000
This post is admittedly partly the result of laziness on my part,
since i have not been following this thread in the detail it deserves.
Perhaps some kind person could summarise what it has uncovered. One
particular problem i have (and others have mentioned it too) is that
if there is nothing in SOL over and above ZFC then the reasons for it
cannot be straightforward: a complement of a property is a property
but ZFC has no axiom of complementation. ZFC doesn't think that sets
are properties. What philosophical reasons are there to suppose
that anything like this should be true?
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