FOM: Do realists really know?
pschust at rz.mathematik.uni-muenchen.de
Tue Jun 13 11:19:01 EDT 2000
Would anybody be so kind to explain why and how
the law of bivalence, i.e., that any statement is
either true or else false, does follow from what
traditionally is called the realist philosophy
of mathematics, i.e., that mathematical objects
are existent disregarding whether they are known?
A similar question has recently been put by Fred Richman;
to my knowledge it has not been answered yet.
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