FOM: categorical dis-foundations

Kanovei kanovei at
Mon Feb 2 13:23:45 EST 1998

Can someone present a consistent proof, 
from the McLarty axioms 1 - 15, of the following theorem: 

there is a real function which equals 0 on Q and 1 on R - Q 

just to see how the axioms work in analysis. People would 
be interested to compare this with a set theoretic proof. 

Vladimir Kanovei

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