FOM: David Ross's comment on the Banach-Tarski paradox
Stephen G Simpson
simpson at math.psu.edu
Thu Dec 11 09:49:00 EST 1997
To: John Baldwin
I find your comment just as objectionable as David Ross's! Your
comment exhibits a lack of precision. *Of course* the Banach-Tarski
paradox has a geometrical component: it's stated in terms of spheres
and rigid motions! But what does F_2 have to do with it? Why can't
you guys spell out what you mean? What's wrong with being articulate?
I have to wonder whether unclear writing reflects unclear thought.
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